Mary-not an unmarried mother??

Mary is so often referred to as an unmarried mother and I wonder why. Is it a convention that suits us- emphasising Jesus’ lowly background?

Luke tells us she was contracted in marriage to Joseph a descendant of King David. The marriage contract had been signed; she was his wife and if he died she would be treated as a widow. As in many cultures there was then an interval before the Bridegroom came to collect the Bride with much rejoicing. Such an interval would allow both families time to prepare for the new home and family. The Bridegroom’s family to make sure there was a room or house furnished ready for the husband to bring his wife. The Bride’s family would be gathering the dowry and belongings for homemaking and both families preparing the couple for their new responsibilities according to custom. But they were legally married and if in the same locality it was not unknown for them to have consummated the marriage before they formally set up home together. Dr Bill Domeris wrote that once the first stage of the marriage contract had been completed ‘in Galilee the marriage could then be sexually consummated, but in Judea this was not so.’ ( Domeris, W. 1987 Matthew a contextual approach to Bible Study).

So, when Mary became pregnant there was no public disgrace; the only one who was certain he was not the father of Mary’s baby was Joseph himself. There is nothing in Scripture to suggest that Jesus was thought to be a bastard, or illegitimate in our terms. By the time the baby was due the marriage arrangement had been completed and they went to Bethlehem together.

And what great timing! Mary was not alone or disgraced yet her baby was arriving before she and Joseph had started their own family. And Joseph too had his revelation from God and the reassurance that God was at the centre and protecting his little family!